Paul the Apostle (3) – Missteps

This is the continuation of “Paul the Apostle (1) Law and Works” and “Paul the Apostle (2) The Chameleon?”.  I encourage you to read Parts 1 and 2 first; the material won’t be repeated here.

The Bible New Testament (NT) says that only Jesus the God-man was sinless (1Pe.2:21-22).  We humans all make mistakes and sin.  A few Old Testament (OT) and NT incidents: Jacob deceived his father Isaac; Moses struck the rock the Lord told him to speak to; David committed adultery; Peter denied Jesus three times; Thomas doubted Jesus’ resurrection.

I’ve been defending Paul, in Paul (1) and Paul (2).  But Paul/Saul (Ac.13:9) too had his faults and made mistakes.  The Pauline epistles show that his understanding of scripture and of Jesus was incomplete.  Yet Paul and the letters attributed to him have had a huge impact on religion!  Wikipedia: Paul the Apostle “From Antioch [Ac.11:19-26] the mission to the Gentiles started, which would fundamentally change the character of the early Christian movement, eventually turning it into a new, Gentile religion.”

Let’s assess Paul’s character and actions.  Saul/Paul said he studied in Jerusalem “at the feet of” the famous Gamaliél (Ac.22:3).  Gamaliel was the first teacher given the title rabban (above rabbi).  Saul was an apt student, and surpassed his peers (Ga.1:13-14).  The unconverted Pharisee Gamaliel advised tolerance toward Jewish Christians (Ac.5:38)!  But the unconverted Pharisee Saul (Ac.23:6) ravaged and imprisoned Jewish Christians (Ac.8:1-3).  He threatened and murdered them (Ac.9:1).  Saul even sided with the rival Sadducee high priest (Ac.5:17, 7:1, 58-59, 9:1), in stoning Stephen!  What all were Saul’s motives, in that he didn’t follow the tolerant advice of his esteemed teacher, a fellow Pharisee?  It’s unclear.  Nevertheless Mic.6:8 “What does the Lord require of you, but to do justice, love mercy, and walk humbly with your God.”  (Mt.23:23 Jesus noted justice, mercy and faith, alluding to Mic.6:8.)  Gamaliel’s good advice also reflected mercy, but the actions of Saul didn’t.  It seems Saul/Paul disregarded his acclaimed tutor.  Though later Paul dropped Gamaliel’s name when defending himself as a believer in Jesus (Ac.22:1-3)!

Was Paul distantly related to Herod; further motivation?  Paul’s father was a Benjamite (Php.3:5).  Paul wrote in Ro.16:11, “Greet Herodíon [Strongs g2267, Greek], my kinsman”.  Paul was Herodion’s relative, who was perhaps kin to Herod’s family.  The Iduméan Herod 1 the Great was raised as a Jew.  Dr. Taylor Marshall Was St Paul Related To Herod? “Saul/Paul favored the theology of the Pharisees before his conversion, but his family connections relate him to the inner circle of Herod Agríppa. In the first century, Hebrews with Roman privilege were linked to the Roman appointed rulers of Palestine – the Herod’s. Saul/Paul gained his Roman citizenship by birth. The Pharisees and the Herodiáns worked together!”  Mk.3:6 “The Pharisees went and immediately began conspiring with the Herodians [g2265] against Jesus.”

The Jerusalem church leaders sent Barnábas to lead the early church at Antioch in Syria (Ac.11:22-26).  As it grew, Barnabas went to Tarsús in Cilicía to get the now converted Paul (ref Ac.9:1-22) whom he’d mentored (Ac.9:27), to assist him in Antioch.  Ac.14:12 the pagans at Lýstra called “Barnabas Zeus, and Paul Hermés”.  Zeus was the chief pagan deity; whereas Hermes was Zeus’ son, lesser.  Dr. Heikki Raisanen Paul and the Law, p.253 “For quite a long time Paul worked as junior partner of Barnabas.”

Paul considered both Barnabas & himself apostles, 1Co.9:5-6.  However, Paul didn’t witness Jesusresurrection.  1Cor.15:8-9 Paul acknowleged, “I am as one untimely born, the least of the apostles”.  He’s been called Jesus’ ‘after-taught’.  (Though elsewhere Paul said he reckoned he “isn’t inferior to the chiefest of the apostles”, 2Co.11:5.)  There’s no indication that Saul knew Jesus prior to Jesus’ ascension.

Due to Paul’s misunderstanding of eschatological timing, ca 55 AD he advised Christians in Greece not to marry, 1Co.7:24-31.  What?!  Paul wrongly presumed time was “short….the present form of this world is passing away”.  (cf. Php.4:5, Ro.13:11-12.)  Dr. Tony Garland Paul and the Imminent Return of Jesus “The apostle thought that the 2nd advent of the Lord would take place in his time. He seemed so sure about it. He goes on to even dissuade marriages among Christians (provided they can exercise self-control).”  How could Paul, who asserted he was taught by Jesus in visions (Ga.1:12, 2Co.12:1), make a mistake so life-altering?

Unlike Jesus’ original apostles, Paul didn’t audibly hear Jesus’ Olivet prophecy, about “this generation shall not pass” (Mk.13, Mt.24).  We Christians believe Jesus is/tells the truth!  But Paul misunderstood the region & the scope, so Europeans best not marry.  Jesus’ relative James wrote ca 50 AD.  Ja.5:9 “The Judge [Jesus] is standing at the door.”  (Good News Translation “The Judge is near, ready to appear.”)  James, leader of the Jerusalem church; he understood.  JFB Commentary Ja.5:9 “The Lord coming to destroy Jerusalem is primarily referred to.”  Jesus ‘came’ as Judge against those Jews in Judea who opposed Him.

Dr. S.G. Wilson The Gentiles and the Gentile Mission, p.71-76 “What did Mark mean in 13:12-ff? It appears that he saw the destruction of Jerusalem as connected to the End. Lk.13:1-9, an impending judgment on Israel. He [Luke] could have meant the destruction of Jerusalem, prophesied elsewhere. This was probably Jesus’ meaning, an integral part of End events.”  Jerusalem/Judea and the temple would be destroyed in 70 AD.  But the “present form of this world” wasn’t passing away then.  Paul erred.

Jesus had told His disciples (Peter, James & John, Andrew) of the temple’s destruction back in Mk.13:1-4, 14, 30. “When you see the abomination of desolation, let those who are in Judea flee to the mountains. I say to you, ‘This generation shall not pass until all these things take place.”  Jews living then.  In the parallel Mt.24:1-3, 15-20, Jesus told them to pray their flight from Judea wouldn’t be on the Sabbath day.  Also Lk.21:5-7, 20-22 “When you see Jerusalem surrounded by armies, recognize her desolation is at hand. Let those in Judea flee to the mountains. For these are the days of vengeance.”  Vengeance is the Lord’s (De.32:41), coming as Judge against antagonistic disbelieving Jews in Judea.

The ‘mountains’ they fled to (east of the Jordan River) weren’t to be destroyed.  Greece wasn’t destroyed.  Wikipedia: History of Jews in Greece “The Jews of Greece didn’t participate in the First Jewish-Roman War [66-73 AD] or later conflicts.”  Paul could have sought counsel from Peter, John, or Barnabas’ relative Mark who wrote the gospel account.  They knew Jesus’ Olivet prophecy.  But there’s no indication Paul asked them.  His mistaken advice to Corinth against marrying wasn’t good.  In that, Paul contradicted God’s word of Ge.2:18 “It is not good for the man to be alone” and Gen.1:28 “Be fruitful and multiply”.  (All this isn’t to imply that Jesus won’t come again, e.g. Ac.1:9-11, 3:19-21. see “The Last Days” topic.)

Maybe Paul, in his mind, misapplied Je.16:1-4.  The Lord had told Jeremiah to “not take a wife” in Judea, prior to Nebuchadnézzar’s horrific siege of Jerusalem in 587 BC (Je.38:23, 39:1)!  cf. Ezk.24:18-21.  The Lord then told the Jewish exiles in Babylon to “take wives and beget sons and daughters” (Je.29:4-6).  And Paul was writing to Greece…not to Jerusalem/Judea which Rome would destroy in 70 AD.  (Paul’s outlook in 1Co.7:1, 26-27 also contradicts his allowance in 1Co.7:2.)  1Co.7:26-ff his advice may have caused a moral nightmare for church leaders in Greece, pertaining to unmarried sex!  And there’d be no family, no sons or daughters, as descendants for those Christians!  No son to help provide for those aging (social security didn’t pay much back then).  Paul gave them unwarranted bad advice!  Surely Jesus didn’t tell him to disfavor wedlock in Greece.  Yet Paul tried to reinforce his notion, v.40 “I think I have the Spirit of God”.

Paul’s advice wasn’t ‘inspired by God’.  De.18:22 “If his prediction doesn’t happen, the prophet has spoken it presumptuously. You shall not revere him [Aramaic Bible].”  Over the centuries, numerous Christian leaders have set wrong dates for Christ’s ‘return’.  But few of them erred as drastically as Paul; most all who thought ‘time was short’ didn’t advise their followers to stay single.  If a church leader today tells his followers not to marry, presuming ‘the end’ is near, he’d risk being labeled a wacky cult leader!

baptistnews.com Problems With Second Coming Theology “The apostle Paul was apparently convinced that Christ’s coming/parousía would happen soon. He told the unmarried in the church at Corinth it would be best if they stayed unmarried because the world as they knew it was about to end (1Cor.7:25-31)….And here we are two millennia later.”  Paul’s understanding was flawed.  Yet later in the 60s AD, in 1Ti.5:14 Paul advised “that the younger widows marry, bear children”.  Paul’s expectation changed?

Re.21:10, 14 the apostle John envisioned the wall of the city New Jerusalem having “12 foundation stones, on which were the names of the 12 apostles of the Lamb”.  Jesus’ original disciples (11 men) plus Matthias, Judas’ replacement.  Cambridge Bible Re.21:14St Paul being excluded.”  Jn.15:27, Ac.1:21-26 the 12 walked with Jesus and witnessed His resurrection.  Mt.19:28 Jesus said, “When the Son of Man sits on the throne of His glory, you shall sit on 12 thrones, judging the 12 tribes of Israel”.  Paul isn’t included in either scenario!  The 12 apostles would judge Paul’s tribe of Benjamin.  (Ge.49:27 “Benjamin is a ravenous wolf.”)  Ep.2:20 Paul himself said the church is “built on the foundation of the apostles and prophets”.  Ellicott Commentary Ep.2:20 “As in Rev.21:14, ‘the foundations’ bear ‘the names of the 12 apostles of the Lamb.”  The 12 knew Jesus prior to His ascension, heard His ‘Sermon on the Mount’, etc.!  Saul/Paul didn’t.

Yet Paul wrote in Ga.2:6-10, “Those who were highly esteemed added in conference nothing to me. James, Peter, and John, who were reputed to be pillars, gave to me and Barnabas the right hands of fellowship.”  Bible historians say Paul wrote Galatians 15–20 years after his conversion.  By then Paul should’ve known the gospel & doctrine of the 3 lead apostles, ‘pillars’ in the church (the eschatological figurative ‘temple’).  And from their broad experience of having walked & talked with Jesus, they could’ve added much understanding to Paul, the self-proclaimed “least of the apostles”!

Jesus had given the “keys of the Kingdom” to Peter (Mt.16:18-19), and James was Jesus’ relative (Ga.1:19); they both spent years with Jesus in the Land!  ref 1Co.15:4-9.  Peter, James, Barnabas were Paul’s seniors in the faith from the lead church, in Jerusalem (Ac.15:7, 13, 19).  Paul faults them.  In Ga.2 Paul substantiates his ministry; he accuses in regards to a past apostolic contention at Antioch.  Who was (more) at fault?

Paul rebuked Peter for racial Judaizing.  Ga.2:11-14 “When Cephás [Peter] came to Antioch [Ac.12:17?], I opposed him to his face, for he stood condemned. Prior to the coming of certain men from James, he used to eat with the gentiles; but he began to withdraw, holding himself aloof, fearing the circumcision party. The rest of the Jewish Christians joined him in hypocrisy. Even Barnabas was swept along with them.”  But Peter had had his own experience, Ac.10, when uncircumcised gentile Godfearers at Caesárea received the Holy Spirit (HS).  Maybe some racism or superiority complex still existed in the psyche of Paul-Peter from Jewish oral law?  cf. Ga.2:15 Paul wrote, “We who are Jews by birth and not Gentile sinners”.

In the 1st century, some non-Godfearer gentiles customarily ate meat from idol temples and set a place at the table for a pagan god.  Paganism was the norm at Lystra in Galatia; they sacrificed to idols (Ac.14:11-13).  Ga.4:8 “When you did not know God you were slaves to those who are no gods.”  learnreligions.com “In terms of morality, Antioch was deeply corrupt. The famous pleasure grounds of Daphne were located on the outskirts of the city, including a temple dedicated to the Greek god Apollo.”  Robertson Commentary Ac.11:20 “These Greeks in Antioch were in part pure heathen, not Godfearers like Cornelius [Ac.10:22].”  Bengel Gnomen Ac.11:20 “Cornelius had been a devout gentile, but these converts [Antioch] were Greeks, idolators.”  Ac.15:7 the first apostle God sent to gentiles was Peter (not Paul).  Peter had said in Ac.10:35, “Every person who fears Him [Godfearers] and does righteousness is accepted by Him”.  Raisanen op. cit., p.41 “Many Godfearers observe the sabbath and the food regulations.”  Peter ate with Cornelius, and boldly defended his action (Ac.10–11).  Peter hadn’t ‘feared’ the believing Jerusalem Jews who’d at first opposed his eating with Godfearers in Caesarea.

Possibly some Antiochian non-Godfearer converts were eating blood and meat sacrificed to idols?  The churches in Pérgamos (Re.2:12-14) & Thyátira (Re.2:18-20) ate sacrifices to idols.  Jews feared committing a form of ‘second-hand idolatry’; they didn’t know if leftover food had gone to the marketplace from pagan rites.  see the topics “Acts 15 – Four Prohibitions” and “Sacrifices To Idols and Romans 14”.

The “men from James” (from Jerusalem) would object to eating with such!  Peter & Barnabas quit eating with gentile converts.  Paul himself wrote in Ro.14:3, “Let not him who eats regard with contempt him who doesn’t eat”.  v.23 “Whoever has doubts, yet still eats, is condemned, because his eating isn’t from faith; whatever is not from faith is sin.”  The non-eaters in Antioch were Peter, Barnabas and all Jewish Christians!

It appears a difficult choice had to be made in Antioch!  Peter didn’t want to risk offending James’ “men”.  Paul didn’t want the converts of he & Barnabas to be offended or misled.  But Barnabas agreed with Peter.  And Paul also wrote in 1Co.10:32, “Give no offense, either to Jews or to Greeks or to the church of God”.

Paul went on in Ga.2:16, “Knowing that a man isn’t justified by works of the law [érgon nómos], but by the faith of Jesus Christ”.  Besides Galatians & Romans, “works of the law” is found elsewhere only in the Dead Sea Scrolls 4QMMT.  They were selected purity rituals, cooking pots, etc.  ref “Paul (1)”.  Possibly Jewish converts in Antioch & Galatia and “men from James” had concerns about impurity resulting from practices of/contact with those who hadn’t been Godfearers.  (cf. Jn.18:28 Jerusalem Jews didn’t enter the gentile Roman Praetorium for fear of becoming defiled for the Passover Chagigáh.)  If sectarian purity rites were the concern…then Paul’s objection seems valid.  Ac.15:9 God “purified their hearts by faith”.

However, eating with past pagans who didn’t do washings/míkvehs for personal hygiene and commonly ate creatures containing parasites would put group health at risk.  General life expectancy in the 1st century Roman Empire was only 40-45 years!  And James urged purifications, Ja.4:8, Ac.21:24-26 Paul did so.

Thomas Aquinas Summa Theologica 1-2, Q.103, Art.4, Reply Obj.2 “According to Jerome, Peter withdrew himself from the Gentiles by pretense, in order to avoid giving scandal to the Jews, of whom he was the Apostle. Hence he did not sin at all in acting thus. On the other hand, Paul in like manner made a pretense of blaming him, in order to avoid scandalizing the Gentiles, whose Apostle he was.”  Furthermore, Paul even claimed in 1Co.9:19-21, “to the Jews I became as a Jew”.  Peter did so at Antioch (Ga.2:11-12).

J. Christiaan Beker Paul the Apostle, p.295 “In Galatia, Paul is charged with distorting the ‘Jerusalem gospel’, because his law-free gospel is attributed to his deviance from the gospel of the mother church in Jerusalem….Although he claims to be an accredited apostle, he cannot be called a personal disciple of Jesus.”  Peter, James, John, Barnabas represented the ‘Jerusalem gospel’.  Dr. Raisanen op. cit., p.216 “The conflict over the law; Luke’s account [Luke-Acts] serves to underline that it is Paul who is the odd man out in early [NT] Christianity.”  Benson Commentary Ga.2:14 “Paul is single against Peter and all the Jews.”  It’s Paul vs 2 or 3 apostles et al.  Peter was an elder (1Pe.5:1).  1Ti.5:1, 19-20 Paul later told Timothy to not rebuke or accuse an elder without 23 supporting witnesses.  Yet solely Paul accused Peter (not privately, cf. Mt.18:15) in Antioch; the ‘witnesses’ backed Peter!  Paul himself counteracted what he’d instruct Timothy.

Wikipedia: Incident at Antioch “The outcome of the incident remains uncertain.”  It’s not in Luke’s history of Acts.  He’s generally for harmony.  Only Paul felt the need to relate it.  What did Paul want to achieve by telling churches in provincial or ethnic Galatia of Peter’s action in Syria?  Dr. L. Michael White From Jesus to Christianity “The blowup with Peter was a failure of political bravado.”  Did Paul consider Peter a rival?

Zero original apostles adopted Paul’s ‘version’ of Jesus’ gospel.  Raisanen op. cit., p.198-200Paul is alone in setting up a contrast between the Toráh with its demands on the one hand and God’s grace or man’s faith in Christ on the other. No one else [in NT] shares Paul’s radical association of the law with sin [e.g. Ro.5:20a].”  Some Bible scholars see Paul’s writings as antinomian, or partially so.

Barnabas and his assistant/co-apostle Paul also had a sharp disagreement about Mark, and separated, Ac.15:35-39.  Maybe the issue at Antioch factored in?  Ellicott Commentary Ga.2:13 “Antioch…The beginning of the breach which would soon afterwards lead to the definite separation of the two apostles seems to be traceable here.”  Lightfoot NT Commentary Ga.2:13 “A temporary feeling of distrust [at Antioch] may have prepared the way for the dissension between Paul and Barnabas.”  Barnabas and Mark then sailed to Cyprus.  It seems that Paul was wrong regarding Barnabas’ relative John Mark (Ac.12:11-12, 13:5, 13, Col.4:10).  Perhaps a young Mark had even met Jesus (Mk.14:50-52)?  2Ti.4:11 Paul later told Timothy, “Only Luke is with me. Pick up Mark and bring him with you, for he is useful to me in the ministry.”  Paul had a change of heart regarding Mark’s service value, or they both repented of the schism.

Luke (an eyewitness) indicated in Acts that Paul’s going to Jerusalem ca 57 AD disobeyed the Holy Spirit (HS).  Ac.20:22-24 the HS kept warning that bonds and afflictions awaited Paul if he went to Jerusalem.  But Paul was determined to go, regardless.  Ac.21:3-4 Christians at Tyre told Paul “through the Spirit that he should not go up to Jerusalem”.  v.8-15 then at Philip’s house in Caesarea the prophet Ágabus bound his own hands & feet with Paul’s belt, telling him “Thus says the Holy Spirit, ‘So shall the Jews at Jerusalem bind the man who owns this belt”.  Luke and the others besought Paul with tears not to go!

But Paul wouldn’t be dissuaded.  2020scripturalvision.com “God graciously warns him. God said no but Paul said go….a sin of omission.”  A martyr complex?  sermons.logos Paul Is Warned “Could our hesitancy to assign blame to Paul be an indication of our holding him in too high regard? Even Paul was capable of acting apart from God’s will.”  Ac.21:31-33 and at Jerusalem, the Roman chíliarch did bind Paul.

Pastor Ray Stedman Paul’s Mistake “Even Paul’s close associates recognized the voice of the Spirit, to which the apostle seemed strangely deaf. He refused to listen. Here we see what can happen to a man of God when he is misled by an urgent hunger to accomplish a goal which God has not given him to do.”  The afflictions Paul was to suffer (Ac.9:16) needn’t have included chains in Jerusalem.  Cambridge Bible Ac.26:17 “The mission to the Gentiles seems to have been made clear to Saul from the very first.”  Ac.22:17-21 in defending himself, Paul recounted how the Lord years ago had told him to “Make haste and get out of Jerusalem; they won’t accept your testimony concerning Me. Go! I will send you far away to the gentiles.”  That was still Jesus’ will.  Paul wasn’t to prove Christ to Jews in Jerusalem!

Paul’s disregarding the HS had grave repercussions!  According to the church historian Eusebius, Paul’s presence then in Jerusalem even factored into those Jews slaying Jesus’ relative James a few years later!

Eusebius (265-340 AD) Ecclesiastical History 2:23:1-2, The Martyrdom of JamesAfter Paul, in consequence of his appeal to Caesar [Ac.25:11-12], had been sent to Rome by Festus [Procurator in Judea, succeeding Felix], the Jews, being frustrated in their hope of entrapping him [Paul]…turned against James, the brother of the Lord. They demanded that he [James] renounce his faith in Christ. He, before the whole multitude confessed that our Lord and Savior Jesus is the Son of God. But they were unable to bear the testimony of the man [James] who was esteemed by all as the most just of men, and consequently they slew him.”  Jesus had told Paul to go to gentiles (Ep.3:8), not to Jerusalem ca 57 AD.

Paul reminded Timothy in 2Ti.3:15-16, “From a child you have known the holy scriptures. All scripture inspired by God is useful.”  The scriptures Timothy had as a child was the OT.  Not Paul’s letters.  Zero OT books themselves are letters!  1st century AD writers of epistles, such as Paul, wouldn’t have considered their epistles ‘holy scripture’.  (Paul’s letters are longer than most 1st century letters, though not Rev.)  Tim Hegg The Letter Writer, p.157 “It is hardly possible that he [Paul] thought his own writings to be on the same canonical level as the books of Moses.”  Jesus’ red-letter spoken words were likely regarded as ‘scripture’, cf. 1Ti.5:18 & Lk.10:7.

2Pe.3:15-17 Peter said Paul’s letters are “hard to understand”.  Was Peter really raising them to the level of ‘God’s written word’!?  Paul acknowledged that some of his writing was just his own opinion (at times plainly mistaken, e.g. 1Co.7:26-31), not God-breathed.  ref 1Co.7:6, 12, 2Co.8:8.  Yet the elderly apostle Peter in 2Pe.3:15 spoke graciously of Paul as a “brother”, though not as an “apostle”.  christianquestions.com/doctrine “There is no written record of either God or Jesus confirming Paul’s apostleship [?]. We only have Paul himself saying he is an apostle, along with a claim by his friend Luke in Acts [14:14].”  In the NT text, Jesus’ original apostles don’t refer to Paul specifically as an “apostle”.  Ga.2:9 they did recognize Paul and previously Barnabas (Ac.11:22-24) as fellow-laborers.

2Pe.3:18 Peter went on to say that Christians are to “grow in the grace and knowledge” of Jesus.  Paul, and Peter too, ‘grew’ over the years.  While learning to walk with the Lord in His will, Paul, and we too, have misstepped; we’ve made mistakes.

But God is compassionate.  Ps.103:8, 12 KJV “The Lord is merciful and gracious. As far as the east is from the west, so far has he removed our transgressions from us.”  Upon repentance, He forgives the mistakes and sins of Paul, of Peter, and of us.  Thanks be to God!

This topic is continued in “Paul the Apostle (4) Discrepancies”.  There, are cited several scriptural discrepancies & contradictions found in the epistles that bear Paul’s name.

 

Female Roles in the Early Church

Gender roles determine how males and females should think, speak and interact in society.  Over 60% of adult churchgoers in the USA are women.  This topic surveys God’s word as we consider female roles & functions in the apostolic church.

To begin, let’s consider a few women in the Old Testament (OT).  First, Ge.1:26-27 “God created man in His own image [and likeness], in the image of God He created him; male and female He created them.”  It takes both male and female, both genders, to complete the image and likeness of God!

In the Bible, the books of Ruth and Esther are named for women.  Also Judith, Susanna and additions to Esther are in the apocryphal books.  Esther was a queen in the Persian Empire.

However, we read of no females in the OT holding positions in the priesthood, tabernacle/temple, or synagogue!  The priesthood or religious authority in ancient Israel consisted of only the male descendants of Moses’ brother Aaron (Ex.28:1), within the tribe of Levi.  There were no female priests.

Besides Ruth and Esther, we see other notable women in the OT.  In Ex.15:1, 20-21 Moses’ older sister Miriam led the women in dancing. (cf. 1Sm.18:6-7)  After the men sang, she followed the men with a refrain to honor God.  She was a “prophetess” and leader of women, here doing public dance and praise.  Pulpit Commentary Ex.15:20 “Prophetesses [so-called] were common in Egypt at a much earlier date.”

Judges 4–5 is the account of the prophetess Deborah, a woman (or wife) of Lapidóth.  Deborah was a civil judge, the only female judge in scripture.  Jg.4:4-6 “She sat under the palm tree of Deborah and the sons of Israel came to her for judgment.”  Deborah’s palm tree was an ancient version of a judge’s courthouse.  She settled disputes and rendered judgments for the fledgling ‘nation’.  People came to her (this wasn’t a synagogue or a church).  Barák’s timidity led to Deborah’s action in Jg.4.  She and Jaél (Jg.4:21-23) were heroines.  Deborah wasn’t associated with God’s tabernacle or priesthood.

In 2Ki.22:12-20 and 2Ch.34:20-28 is the account of the prophetess Huldáh.  Her husband (or son, ref Septúagint/LXX 2Ki.22:14) held a royal court position.  She had a school for women in Jerusalem and was a relative of Jeremiah, according to the Talmud (Meg. 14b).  Jeremiah preached repentance to the men; she preached repentance to the women (Pesik R. 26).  While Jeremiah was away from Jerusalem, she was asked to prophesy.  In 2Ki.22:14, representatives of the king “went to Huldah; now she lived in Jerusalem, the 2nd Quarter.”  They communed with her privately in her sector of the city.  This wasn’t in the ‘house’ of the Lord, the temple.  Nor was this in a synagogue.

2Ki.22:15-20 “She said to them, ‘Thus says the Lord, I will bring evil on this place. Because they have forsaken Me. But to the king [Josiah] of Judah, you shall be gathered to your grave in peace.”  (No conditional ‘if’.)  God’s judgment came upon Judah, as she said.  But King Josiah died in war, not in peace (2Ch.35:20-25)!  Some Bible scholars view her prophecy as false in that regard (cf. De.18:22).  However, Josiah ignored God’s words (2Ch.35:21-22).  It ended badly for both king and nation.  Whatever her accuracy, Huldah wasn’t associated with the temple or priesthood.

Noadiáh was a so-called prophetess who tried to intimidate Nehemiah.  Nehemiah said in Ne.6:14, “Remember Tobiáh and Sanballát, and Noadiah the prophetess who were trying to frighten me”.  Nehemiah speaks of this (false?) prophetess among those his enemies.

Bible historians say a prophet’s wife was also called a ‘prophetess’ (as a mayor’s wife may be called a ‘mayoress’).  The prophet Isaiah wrote in Is.8:3, “I approached the prophetess and she conceived”.  Pulpit Commentary “Titles were given in the East to the wives, daughters, etc., of officials, which merely reflected the dignity of their husbands, fathers, etc. Even Miriam seems to be called a prophetess (Ex.15:20) from her close relationship to Moses, rather than from any supernatural power that she had.”  However, scripture indicated the judge Deborah heard from God (Jg.4:6).

In the 900s BC, God’s temple grounds had a court for priests (no women), and a great court for all to worship (2Ch.4:9).  In Herod’s temple, females gathered in the Court of the WomenThey weren’t allowed in the Court of Israel (accessible only to circumcised men), the Court of the Priests, or the sanctuary proper.

Let’s see what the New Testament (NT) reveals about women in the synagogue or church assembly.  We read of the prophetess Anna in Lk.2:36-38.  This elderly Israelite widow spoke of the infant Jesus in the Court of the Women.  There was a separation of the sexes, etc. in Herod’s temple courts.  Alfred Edersheim & Phillip Schaaf attest to a separation of sexes in the synagogue.  A women’s gallery was at the north end of synagogues.  Several years ago my wife & I visited an orthodox synagogue in our city.  Even as visitors, we weren’t allowed to sit together…females are required to sit in a separate section.

A literate, competent female was allowed to do scripture readings in some early synagogues.  Many synagogue practices were carried over into the church, made up of Jewish Christians and gentiles.  The church is even called by the Greek term synagogue in Ja.2:2. “If any man comes into your synagogue [Strongs  g4864] dressed in fine clothes….”  (also see the topic, “Synagogue Influence on the Church“.)

Continuing with prophesying…Ac.2:17-18 (quoted from Joel 2:28-29), “Your sons and daughters shall prophesy, My servants and handmaidens [g1399]”.  In Lk.1:38, 46-48 the betrothed virgin Mary exulted the Lord to Elizabeth, calling herself His handmaiden.  Ac.21:8-9 “Philip the evangelist had four virgin daughters who did prophesy [g4395].”  Where at?  Probably Luke’s mentioning their prophesying meant more than them reflecting the dignity of their father the evangelist.

Anna, Mary, and Phillip’s daughters are females identified as prophesying in the NT.  They were either unmarried or virgins.  1Co.7:34 KJV “There is a difference between a wife [woman, guné g1135] and a virgin.”  The status of unmarried daughters, maidens, damsels, virgins, divorcees, widows differed from that of wives.  The head of a single female living at home is her father, whereas the head of a wife is her husband (Ep.5:23).  Fathers/husbands were, in that sense, between her and God.  I would think a single female who prophesied may do so after she is married with children (Ro.11:29?).

Synagogue practices at Corinth were brought into the Corinthian church.  Ac.18:1, 4, 8, 17 Sosthénes and Críspus were synagogue rulers in Corinth who became Jewish Christians (1Co.1:1, 14).  The letter of 1Corinthians was from Paul and Sosthenes (1:1).  1Co.11–14 has to do with the church assembly or meeting.  The Greek term for “assemble/come together” (g4905) occurs seven times here. 1Co.11:17-18, 20, 33-34, 14:23, 26.  Over 70% of today’s churches abide by the following NT guidelines:

1Co.10:1, 11:33, 12:1, 14:6, 20, 26-33, 39-40 refers only to brethren (adelphós g80), not sisters (adelphé g79)…in church.  (In contrast, see Ja.2:15 on the needs of both brethren & sisters outside church.)  1Co.14:26 “Brethren when you assemble.”  v.31 only brethren can prophesy to the church!

What about the women in church?  Paul wrote in 1Co.14:34, “Let the women keep silent in the churches; for they aren’t permitted to speak [laléo g2980]. But let them subject themselves [g5293], just as the Law also says.”  Women/wives are to be silent in regards to prophesying/preaching (or teaching) to men in church.  That was still the rule also in the orthodox synagogue I visited.  Apostolic Constitutions (latter 300s AD) compared the church to the synagogue. “And let the women sit by themselves, they also keeping silence.”  Yet in Ep.5:19 females may be “singing songs, hymns and spiritual songs”.  Singing praise to God in church isn’t prophesying to or teaching men.

Vines Expository re the Greek term for “speak” (laleo g2980). “It is used several times in 1Co.14; the command prohibiting women from speaking in a church gathering (v.34, 35) is regarded by some as an injunction against chattering, a meaning which is absent from the use of the verb everywhere else in the NT. It is to be understood the same as v.2, 3-6, 9, 11, 13, 18-19, 21, 23, 27-29, 39.”

Their silence in the Corinth church was also necessary due to the influence of heathen prophetesses at the oracle of Delphi across the bay.  Gill Exposition “They could all prophesy, except women (v.31, 34).”  Pertaining to ‘in church’, that is.

1Co.14:34 Vines Expository re the Greek word in “women subject themselves [hupotásso g5293]”. “A military term, to rank under.”  This word is also used in 1Co.15:27-28, Lk.10:17, and elsewhere.  Greek Bible scholar Spiros Zódiates says it means “to place in an orderly fashion under”.  Likewise in 1Pe.3:1, Peter says (as Paul also said), “Wives, subject yourselves [g5293] to your own husbands”.

In 1Co.14:34, Paul refers to the Law.  After the first woman in scripture (Eve) had been deceived, God commanded in Ge.3:16. “Your husband shall rule over you.”  She was to be subject.  Paul knew of that passage.  It’s not just a cultural thing (ref Adam & Eve), and not just a situation at Corinth.

Paul also said to Timothy at Ephesus.  1Ti.2:12-15 “I don’t allow a woman to teach or exercise authority over a man. It wasn’t Adam who was deceived, but the woman being quite deceived fell into transgression.”  Paul reasons based on Ge.3:16.  We see that the principle affecting women in NT epistles long predates the 1st century cultural context.  So women aren’t to teach adult males in church.

And it’s not because women may be less educated.  Ge.3:16 applies universally.  With Adam & Eve it wasn’t about ‘education’.  For that matter, Jesus’ original 12 disciples were mostly un-educated (men)!

In 1Co.14:34, wives are to hold their peace and not prophesy or preach to or teach men in church.  Paul goes on in v.35. “Let them ask their own husbands at home, for it is disgraceful [g149] for a wife to speak in church.”  Paul writes pointedly.  This Greek term g149 aischrón, rendered disgraceful/shame, occurs only a few times in the NT.  In Ep.5:12 e.g. “Don’t participate in the unfruitful deeds of darkness. It is disgraceful even to speak of the things which are done by them in secret.”

Paul’s guidelines in 1Cor.14 weren’t just his opinion.  Continuing in v.37-38, “Recognize that the things I write to you are the Lord’s command. But if anyone doesn’t recognize this, he is not recognized.”  A sobering statement!  Robertson’s Commentary “There is no doubt at all as to Paul’s meaning here.”

Again, there were no female priests in Israel.  In the OT, there were no women sitting among the elders (h2205) of the gate in Israel.  And of Jesus’ original 12 apostles…none were females.

Paul’s instruction (the “Lord’s command”) wasn’t just a cultural issue for Corinth.  Ac.18:19 Luke wrote of a synagogue at Ephesus.  Later Paul writes to Timothy, who’s in Ephesus (1Ti.1:3).  Again, 1Ti.2…Paul writes in v.8-9, “I want the men in every place to pray, lifting up holy hands. Likewise women [g1135]….”  Men and women both prayed & praised with hands lifted up (ref Ac.1:14, 12:12, 16:13 women praying).  v.10-11 “Let a woman quietly receive instruction with entire submissiveness [g5292].”  Requoting 1Ti.2:12, “But I don’t allow a woman to teach [g1321 didásko] or exercise authority over a man.”  Again, this was in church (outside, some men work for a female manager).

This term didasko/g1321/teach occurs 97 times in the NT.  The only other verse where g1321 refers to a woman/wife g1135 is Jezebel in Re.2:20, “Who calls herself a prophetess [g4398]”.  And they tolerated her to teach immorality!  A false prophetess/teacher in the Thyátira church (cf. Noadiah, Ne.6).

Paul wrote authoritatively in 1Ti.2 (and 1Co.14)!  Dr. Zodiates says the term teach g1321 there means “to instruct, to influence. A wife should display a tranquil spirit in her attempt to learn.”

This topic would be too lengthy if I were to include all verses containing other koiné Greek terms closely related to g1321/didasko/teach.  Related terms are: g1317 didactikós, g1318 didaktós, and g1319, g1320, g1322.  However, in every occurrence of those terms in the NT…never was a female teaching!

Paul wrote in 1Co.11:3, “I want you to understand that Christ is the head of every man, and the man is the head of a wife [woman g1135], and God is the head of Christ”.  As the men don’t teach Christ, man’s Head…the wife/woman in church doesn’t teach the man, her head.

A husband in Israel even had the God-given authority to annul a vow made between his wife and the Lord Himself!  see Nu.30:3, 6-8, 10-13.  God so validated the husband’s decision & authority!  Peter noted in 1Pe.3:6, “Sarah obeyed Abraham, calling him lord”.  Paul & Peter recognized the man-woman roles and the order God has set in motion.  Men may teach & have authority over men, but women aren’t to do so to men in church.

Who may women teach?  Ti.2:3 “Older women are to be teaching what is good (g2567).”  This is the only NT occurrence of the term g2567 kalodidáskalos.  v.4-5 “That they may train [g4994, sole occurrence] the young women [wives] to love their husbands, to love their children, being subject to their own husbands, that the word of God not be dishonored.”  Women are to teach younger women and youths.  Pr.29:15 “A child left to himself brings shame to his mother.”  Women may teach or preach to other females.

The Greek verb for prophesy is g4395 propheteúo.  It can mean “to foretell events, inspired speaking”.  We already saw Paul’s instructions in 1Co.14:31-40 regarding prophesying in church.  The brethren may prophesy, but not the women to men.  Paul said this ruling was the “Lord’s command” (v.37)!  In 1Co. 11:5, Paul addressed the matter of women prophesying elsewhere, with heads covered.  This guideline was perhaps his reaction to the 1,000 priestesses/prostitutes (with hair short) at Aphrodíte’s temple in nearby AcroCórinth.  Women aren’t restricted from praying or prophesying in public.  Paul wouldn’t purposely contradict himself in the same letter!?  1Co.14 is about the church assembly.

There are other women specifically named in the NT.  Priscilla/Prisca (Latin) and her husband Aqúila are together mentioned six times.  Three times Aquila is named first, and three times Priscilla is named first.  Ac.18:24-26 “He [Apollós] began to speak out boldly in the synagogue, but when Priscilla and Aquila heard him, they took him aside and explained [ektíthemi g1620] the way of God more accurately.”  Vines defined g1620, “To set out, expose circumstances”.  This term appears in Ac.11:4 as Peter related his vision in sequence.  Apollos came from Alexandria, Egypt.  Robertson’s Commentary “Priscilla gave Apollos the fuller story of the life & works of Jesus and of the apostolic period to fill up the gaps in Apollos’ knowledge. Privately so as to not cause an embarrassment.”  Priscilla didn’t prophesy or explain this in a synagogue/church meeting!  Ro.16:3-5 Prisca & Aquila became hosts.

Ro.16:1-2 Cenchreá was located 7-10 miles from Corinth, in the harbor.  The sister (g79) Phoebe was a patroness able to help others, a servant (diáconos g1249), and perhaps a widow.  Being “able to teach” wasn’t a qualification for a diáconos/deacon g1249, but was for an overseer, 1Ti.3:1-13.  The goodly order of elder ecclesiastical widows aged 60+ (under male eldership) were enrolled in church support, 1Ti.5:1-2, 9-10.  They gave back by ministering to widows & orphans (a precursor is Ac.6:1-3).  These presbytéral ladies supervised/taught younger women, Ti.2:3-4.  Ac.9:36-42 Dorcás may have been one.

Lk.8:3 Joanna, Susanna and other patronesses contributed support.  Ac.16:14-ff Lydia was a well-to-do businesswoman who became the first convert in Europe.  No verses show any of the above ladies teaching or preaching to men in church!

Ro.16:7 “Greet Andrónicus and Junían, my kinsmen, who are of note among the apostles.”  Were they husband & wife housechurch hosts esteemed by apostles, or was this a Junías or Junía, a male or female apostle?  Translations differ.  Some Bible historians think the Greek name referred to the male Junias, not the female Junia.  Órigen referred to this person as Junias, male.  Chrýsostom thought she was Junia, female.  Epíphanius considered this to be Junias, a man, the bishop of Apameía in Syria.  Bible scholarship on this is mixed.  However, in Ro.16 there’s nothing about them teaching or prophesying.

What other women?  In Lk.1:39-56, Mary prophesied privately to Elizabeth.  Jn.2:5 has the so-called commandment of Mary, spoken at a wedding. “Do what He [Jesus] tells you to do.”  2John is a personal epistle addressed to a lady and her children (v.1).  Some think she was Mary.  Or she was Martha (cf. Jn.11:1), and the children of Martha’s deceased sister Mary also sent greeting (2John 13).  There’s nothing about the lady herself teaching or prophesying.

In the centuries following, other females of note have appeared.  To mention a few: In the 1100s AD, Hildegard of Bíngen was a visionary Benedíctine abbess/physician in Europe.  Barbara Newman Sister Of Wisdom, p.3 “Never did she [Hildegard] suggest that, as a woman, she had any ‘right’ to teach and prophesy in the Church. Nor did she claim an equality with men.”  Hildegard spoke of the weak church leadership of her day, p.241. “Although they [the clergy] ought to submit to God’s commandments as a woman to a man, they [clergy] rebel because there is no man to rule them.”  Newman wrote on p.247, “Hildegard actively supported the exclusion of women from the clergy”.

Around 1700 AD, the contemplative Madame Guyon promoted ‘quietness’, that a person should pray continually.  Aimee Semple McPherson was an immensely popular evangelist who conducted faith healing demonstrations in Los Angeles and her tent meetings in the early 1900s.  Kathryn Kuhlman was another evangelist who held healing crusades from the 1940s–1970s.  These did much public preaching.  During the 1900s, Mother Theresa was a missionary to the poor in India, doing notable charitable works.  That’s just a few.  It’s not my place here to appraise these historical figures.

Concluding: I see no Bible verse where a female is prophesying to or teaching men in church (or synagogue), in either the New or the Old TestamentWomen weren’t overseers of men as pastors or shepherds of churches in scripture.  Within mixed groups in church, the leaders were men.  That’s understandable.  A situation where the Christian husband is being taught in church by his ‘pastor’ wife would be contrary to scripture.  And a man’s wife as the object of attention of other men sitting in the congregation possibly can lead to problems; also if she’s looked to shepherd or counsel men.

Even back in Is.3:12, the prophet regretfully wrote, “As for My people, youths are their oppressors and women rule over them. O My people, your leaders cause you to err.”  A sad state of affairs.

But in the account of the Acts 15 Jerusalem council, scripture indicates only men are present…no women as leaders there.  Again, Paul said in 1Co.14:39 for in-church, “Brethren, desire to prophesy”.

Sisters do reflect the Holy Spirit, and may evangelize and be missionaries outside the church.  Sisters minister through: prayers, music, dance, encouragement, comforting, financial aid, hospitality, charity, as deaconesses, teaching women/children, testimony, evangelism, missionaries, prophesying elsewhere.

Again, the majority of churchgoers in this country are females, not males.  And 70% of churches still do abide by most of the above scriptural guidelines.

But the more recent aberration of women pastors teaching and preaching to men in some churches of Western Christianity…doesn’t get its authority from the Bible!  Instead, it’s a modern cultural thing.

This isn’t about chauvinism or a competition of men versus women.  It’s about what the Bible reflects.

Yet…it’s a wise man who will listen to/heed his wife’s input and advice on home & family matters, prior to his making a final decision.  The virtuous woman of Proverbs 31 is a good home/property manager.  Males and females, with their respective roles, are both made in God’s image & likeness and complement each other.  Men and women are both heirs of eternal life (1Pe.3:7).

Women/wives who will personally adhere to the Bible admonitions regarding female roles in church will be respected and honored!  Scripture reflects many godly women who were admired and beloved!

Passover and Peace Offerings

The Passover is a fascinating institution.  But frankly, it has become somewhat of a misnomer in churches.  Jews today, both religious & non-religious, do a ritual séder (order) for a traditional retelling of ancient Israel’s exodus from Egypt.  The séder isn’t an actual Passover (nor is it meant to be), as the scriptures define Passover.  Neither is the so-called ‘Passover’ that some churches claim they keep.

In the 1st century, scrolls of Moses were read every sabbath in the many synagogues (Ac.15:21).  Jews, proselytes and gentile God-fearers heard those readings.  Likewise in the primitive church the apostle Paul instructed Timothy to attend to the public reading of Old Testament (OT) scriptures (1Ti.4:13).  2Ti.3:15-16 all scripture is of God.  But the oral traditions of the Pharisees aren’t scripture.  And although the later writings of  ‘church fathers’ so-called are of much value, they aren’t scripture either.

Passover represented Israel’s liberation from Egypt 3,600 years ago, and was the beginning of their ritual worship.  Ex.12:23-24 the Word/Christ would “pass over”/pawsákh (Strongs h6452, Hebrew verb; the English rendering ”passover” was coined by Tyndale in 1530 AD), and keep alive all Israel’s firstborn males just prior to the exodus.  (also see the topic, “Passover and the Exodus Timing”.)

Prior to Moses and the exodus, more ancient gentiles/non-Israelites such as Enoch, Noah, Abraham (the father of the faithful, Ga.3:7) who lived before Ex.12…didn’t have Passover.

Today there are misconceptions about Passover.  And Passover misconceptions have contributed to division in the church.  Passover was only for Israel, being one of three annual pilgrim feasts in the Holy Land.

The Lord’s initial Passover was in Góshen of Egypt (ref Ge.47:27), during the 1st month of Abíb.  The account is in Ex.12.  It was unlike any succeeding Passover celebration.  e.g. Ex.12:11 that first Passover was eaten in haste with their bags packed and staff in their hand, and the only kind of Passover animals here was a lamb/kid…it was the so-called military Passover.

An annual Passover observance was of such importance…God thereafter made allowance for it to be kept in the 2nd month, if necessary.  Nu.9:10-14 a year after departing Egypt, Passover was kept in the wilderness (only).  Later, Israelites in the Land who’d fail to keep Passover would be cut off by God!  A recurring individual purification immersion was done prior to keeping Passover (cf. Le.7:21, Jn.11:55).

Ex.12:43-49 the Lord didn’t allow males who aren’t physically circumcised to partake of the Passover!  Ex.12:48 “No uncircumcised person may eat it.”  (Females aren’t so circumcised.)  Jsh.5:6-10 those males leaving the wilderness became circumcised, and therefore could eat the Passover in the Land of Canáan at Gilgál, where the tabernacle rested after their wilderness wanderings.

God authorized the Passover to be sacrificed annually at the only location on earth where the Lord’s Name wasnever at two or more places simultaneously.  ref De.12:5, 11, 17-18, 14:23-25, 2Sm.6:2.  Christ dwelt at the sanctuary Most Holy Place between the cherubim; His Name YHVH was on the high priest’s golden mitre plate there (Ex.25:21-22, 28:36-38).  They were to keep Godordained pilgrim feasts at only one place at a time (De.16:16)!

De.16:1, 5-6 “Celebrate the Passover (péhsakh h6453, noun)….You aren’t allowed to sacrifice the Passover in any of your towns, but at the place where the Lord chooses to establish His Name.”  Passover wasn’t allowed in their various towns away from the tabernacle/temple.  Many today are unaware that this prohibition existed! 

The Lord said in Ex.12:1-2, “This month is the first month of the year to you”.  v.5-8 the Passover lamb or kid was killed “on the 14th day of the same month…They shall eat the flesh that night.”

But centuries later in Babylon, Daniel fasted during a Passover season.  Da.10:1-5, 13 Daniel fasted for 3 weeks or 21 days untilthe 24th day of the first month”.  The date of Passover, the 14th day of the 1st month, fell within Daniel’s 3-week fast.  However, it would’ve been disobedience for Daniel to sacrifice the Passover away from the environs of the tabernacle or temple where the Lord’s Name had been in Jerusalem!  Since God had no central sanctuary in Babylon…no Passover!  So Daniel could fast during that season without being disobedient.  And Ezekiel named Daniel, Noah, Job as three righteous men (Ezk.14:14, 20).  Interestingly, none of the three kept any Passovers (in the East/Mesopotámia).

Approximately 80 years later (457 BC), in the Persian Empire, Ezra the priest made the four-month trip from near the Euphrates River to Jerusalem.  ref Ezr.7:8-9, 15, 8:15, 21, 31-33.  Ezra’s group departed in the 1st month just 2-3 days before Passover.  As with Daniel, a Passover at the Euphrates wasn’t allowed!  So there was no need for Ezra to delay their departure until after Passover.  And God’s word didn’t authorize Ezra’s group to keep Passover elsewhere en route either!

In the New Testament (NT), Lk.2:41-42 tells of young Jesus at Passovers.  “His parents went up to Jerusalem every year at the feast of the Passover. And when He became 12, they went up….”  Only in Jerusalem!  Every year.  Jesus didn’t observe Passover at some unauthorized location such as Galilee, and thereby sin.  If He’d ever sinned, we’d have no Savior!

Likewise, there is no OT or NT example of saints with the Holy Spirit keeping a Passover in towns of their choosing.  Not Elijah, Elisha, Samson, Isaiah, Nathan the prophet, not Paul, Apollos, not the church at Thessalonica, Colóssae, etc.  Rather, Passover was authorized only in Jerusalem from the time of Solomon’s temple, and even in Paul’s day (ref Ac.18:21 KJV, 20:16).

De.16:2 “You shall sacrifice the Passover from the flock and the herd in the place where the Lord chooses to establish His Name.”  Not just from the flock!  God commanded for Passover animals to be killed annually from both the flock and the herd.  Lambs, kids, and bulls too were Passover animals.  Animal blood was sprinkled on the altar before eating the holy meals; ref 2Ch.35:6-13.  They couldn’t kill the Passover anywhere other than at the central sanctuary (where the Lord’s Name and altar was)!

The Lord didn’t command wine at Passover.  Else Nazarites for life, being forbidden to drink wine, would’ve been cut off by God for not keeping Passover!  (ref Nu.6:2-3, 9:13.)  Wine was added as a traditional custom in the Roman Empire.  From the Talmud Pésachim tract concerning Passover rituals, “They should not give him [a man] less than four cups of wine”.

Jesus didn’t say bread & wine replaced the Passover meal!  In all Last Supper passages, the Greek term for bread is ártos, never the ázumos/unleavened which was required for Passover.  (However, Jesus and His Jewish disciples would’ve obediently eaten unleavened bread at Passover, cf. Ex.12:8, 17-18.)

David Stern Jewish New Testament Commentary, Appendix, p.931 contains the Dead Sea Scrolls account of frequent regular bread & wine meals shared decades before Jesus walked the earth.  Jesus is of the order of Melchisedek (ref Ps.110:1-4; Ge.14:18-20), not the Levitical order.  (see the topics “Melchisedek Order Priesthood” and “Jesus’ Last Supper Timing”.)

Jn.1:29 John the Baptizer referred to Jesus as “The Lamb (Strongs g286, Greek) of God who takes away the sins of the world”.  In Le.14:13, 19, a male lamb (Septúagint/LXX g286) was for a sin offering.  Also the Is.53:7 LXX prophecy about Jesus, “He was led as a sheep to slaughter, and as a lamb [g286] before its shearer is silent”.  (cf. Ac.8:32.)  Jesus became a guilt offering for sin (Is.53:10).  The great Shepherd became as a sheep.

But Jesus is never referred to as the ‘Passover Lamb in the Bible!  The Passover lamb wasn’t a sin offering to expiate sins!  (More on types of sacrifices below.)  Yet Jesus is the submissive humble King, and one spring season in Jerusalem He became the Jews’ Passover fulfillment too….

Jewish Christian Alfred Edersheim wrote of the Mt.26:26-28 bread & wine. “With this celebration and new institution, the Jewish Passover forever ended!”  (The necessary temple was destroyed in 70 AD.)  Again, most Jews today call their commemorative spring celebration a seder, not a Passover.

Passover had existed for approximately 1,600 years of human history for Israel/Judah (cf. Jn.6:4).  Writers have said the Samaritans didn’t do their Passover or seder in various towns away from their supposed holy site of Mt. Gerizím in the holyland (cf. De.16:5-6; Jn.4:7, 20-21).

Our friends the 7th Day Baptist Statement of Beliefs: “We believe the Lord’s Supper commemorates the suffering and death of our Redeemer.”  1Co.10:16-17 break bread here refers to the Lord’s Supper.  1Co.11:23-28 Paul doesn’t call it the “Passover”.  For that matter, in Ac.20:6, 11, this occasion of breaking bread was a couple weeks after the Passover date.  (see “Bread and Wine in the Church”.)

{Sidelight: Ac.18:17 Sosthénes was the leader of the synagogue at Corinth; he became a Jewish Christian.  1Co.1:1-3 is the greeting from the Jewish Christians Paul and Sosthenes to the church at Corinth (composed of Jews & gentiles).  1Co.5:6-9 the church was exhorted. “Purge out the old leaven. For Christ our Passover has been sacrificed. Therefore let us celebrate the feast, not with old leaven, nor with the leaven of malice and wickedness, but with the unleavened sincerity and truth. I wrote to you not to associate with immoral people.” Yeshúa/Jesus was the Passover of Jews Paul and Sosthenes (“our Passover”), and the other Jewish Christians.  (Yeshua died on the cross when the Passover from the herd was being eaten or sacrificed.)  The old leaven metaphorically was immoral sex (1Co.5:1, 9).

JFB Commentary “The image is taken from the extreme care of the Jews purging out every particle of leaven from the time of killing the lamb before Passover.”   Barnes Notes “It does not mean literally the paschal supper here.”  Gill Exposition “Not the feast of the Passover, though this is said in allusion to it.”  Robertson’s Commentary “It is quite possible Paul is writing about the time of the Jewish Passover. But, if so, that is merely incidental.”  Cambridge Bible “Keep the feast, referring to the perpetual feast the Christian church keeps.”  Others link this exhortation to the church love feasts (ref Jude 1:12).

Perhaps many gentiles among Jewish Christians refrained from eating leaven for seven days.  Paul’s mídrash in 1Co.5 doesn’t refer to a literal Passover feast, but is figurative.  The incestuous man having his father’s wife, “malice and wickedness”, is likened to old leaven…whereas “sincerity and truth” is likened to unleavenedGeneva Study Bible “By alluding to the ceremony of the Passover, he [Paul] exhorts them to cast out that unclean person from among them.”  God’s Old Covenant temple was never in Corinthso Passover never could be kept in Corinth.  Neither were uncircumcised Christian gentiles lawfully keeping Passover there, or anywhere else!  Pulpit CommentaryGentile Christians certainly weren’t keeping the Jewish Passover.”}

The Passover blood had saved the Israelite firstborn sons (e.g. Aaron) from death in Egypt.  Ex.12:5-6 the lamb/kid must be killed on Abíb 14.  Ex.12:7-10 Israelites were to eat it in one meal only.

It was a peace offeringnot a sin offering.  It was eaten with unleavened bread and bitter herbs.  The Passover “from the herd” (De.16:2) became known as the Chagigáh in Hebrew parlance.

Le.7:11-21 the lamb was a thank type peace offering (LXX “deliverance” offering).  Cameron Walker Historical Backgrounds of the Holy Communion “The Passover Lamb was a Peace offering.”  Jewish Encyclopedia “Among the thank-offerings might be included the páschal lamb.”

The annual Passover may be called the national peace offering for Israel.  It is thought the Passover Chagigah from the herd was a freewill type peace offering, varying in quantity and number of days eaten at the sanctuary city.

Peace offerings (meals with God) were the only type of offerings which the offerer was allowed to eat some of during the year, and share with the needy.

It’s not coincidental, peace offerings had a place in instituting both the Old Covenant (Ex.24:5-8) at Mt. Sinai, and the New Covenant at Passover time in Jerusalem (e.g. Lk.22:19-20).

Le.7:29-30, 34 the offerer could give portions to the priest as a consecrated gift to God.  The priest ate the breast and shoulder/thigh.  Le.3:6-8 the officiating priest must sprinkle the blood on the altar of burnt offering at the central sanctuary.  2Ch.35:7-8, 11 those priests in King Josiah’s day sprinkled the Passover animals’ blood…as temple priests must sprinkle the blood of the lamb brought by Jesus’ disciples for His last Passover meal!  The Passover meals were only authorized at the sanctuary city.

Jesus didn’t violate God’s command of the Abib 14 date; He didn’t have His lamb killed somewhere a day early on Abib 13 without blood being sprinkled!  Rather, His lamb was killed at the time when all the other Passover lambs were being killed at the temple…Lk.22:7-8; Mk.14:12.

De.4:2 was an admonition not to add to nor take away from God’s written word.  “It is written.”  Jn.10:35 the scripture cannot be broken.  Jesus didn’t disobey God’s written word.

But a man wasn’t allowed to eat his sin offering (which he took to the priest) for his own sin.  ref Le.6:24-26, 29-30.  Israelites/Jews ate the Passover.  So eating Passover peace offerings from the flock & herd scripturally doesn’t fit Jesus dying as a ‘Passover Lamb’ for everyone’s “sins”.  That would be co-mingling different types of sacrifices.  (also see “Sacrifices and Burnt Offerings”.)

Note: Le.23:27 a fast was commanded on the annual national sin offering Day of AtonementBlood was brought into the Most Holy Place on that holiest day of the year.  Le.16:15, 27 the slain goat wasn’t to be eaten, unlike the Passover animals.  (see the topic “Day of Atonement”.)  Jesus also fulfills both atonement goats of Yom Kíppur…and Passovers of the flock & the herd…and all OT sacrifices!

He.13:10-14 the 1st century AD Levites at the temple who didn’t believe in Jesus’ sacrifice weren’t worthy to eat the Lord’s Supper being celebrated in the churches…it’s not Passover.  God never authorized His Passover to be celebrated in various (church) locations simultaneously, nor by physically uncircumcised gentiles!  (For more on feast regulations, see “Feasts of the Lord and the Jews”.)

Conclusion: The ancient institution of Passover and its timing shouldn’t be a cause of division in the body of Christ!  Neither should it confuse the partaking of the Lord’s Supper.  May we in the church continue to believe and trust in Jesus’ precious blood (1Pe.1:18-19), shed for our sins!

 

Circumcision in the Bible

Approximately 55–60% of males in the USA are physically circumcised, 25-30% worldwide.  Most in Africa and Moslem nations are.  Few are in Europe, China, Russia, India, South America.  My two sons were circumcised as a health precaution when they were one week old.  They have no recollection of it.  Anesthetics reduce discomfort.  Yet hearing my little sons’ pitiful screams in the adjoining room was hard to bear!  It can be painful when something is cut out – physically, emotionally, or spiritually.

Circumcision is the procedure to remove the male foreskin from the penis.  That quick surgery can protect against urinary tract infections and STDs, decrease the risk of HIV and even some cancers.

Among the reasons people practice circumcision are: to aid hygiene/health (boys may not clean their foreskin well), to mark the transition to manhood, to afflict enemies, as a religious or status symbol.

Wikipedia: History of Circumcision “The origin of circumcision is not known with certainty. It likely has roots among ethnic groups in sub-equatorial Africa, Egypt [2300 BC], and Arabia. Heródotus, writing in the 5th century BCE, lists Egyptians being the oldest people practicing circumcision, then Colchians [Black Sea area], Ethiopians, Phoenicians, and Syrians. He wrote disparagingly that ‘the Egyptians practice circumcision [at puberty] for the sake of cleanliness’. Josephus seems to suggest that the Edomites were uncircumcised until being forcefully converted to Judaism by John Hyṙcanus [120 BC]. Ancient Greeks considered circumcision a mutilation. Europeans, with the exception of Jews, didn’t practice circumcision.”  (I’m uncircumcised and not Jewish.)

Eve Feinstein Bathing in the Hebrew Bible “In biblical Israel, where water was scarce, bathing was often a momentous event, fraught with religious significance.”  Circumcision aided personal hygiene.

Of the peoples who’ve practiced circumcision, of note are the Jewish people.  Jews today don’t promote the religious circumcising of gentiles.  However, in antiquity Jews were more a próselytízing people.

Although circumcision aids cleanliness, there’s no evidence man was created circumcised!  Creation was good without circumcision (Ge.1:31)!  No scripture states that Noah or Enoch or anyone else before the Flood was circumcised.  Dr. Ralph F. Wilson The Covenant of Circumcision With Abraham “The earliest evidence we have for circumcision is from a number of bronze statuettes found at Tell Judéideh in northern Syria, dating to about 2800 BC. Circumcision was rather common in Abraham’s world.”

Biblical circumcision is for the lineage of Abraham-Isaac-Jacob (A-I-J), primarily living in the Holy Land (of Canáan).  Physical circumcision involves a male reproductive organ.

First, let’s look at the Abrahamic Covenant in Genesis 15.  v.1-7 the Lord promised Abrám that he will come to have numerous descendants (v.5) and they will possess the Land of Canaan (v.7).  Ge.15:6 LXX “Abram believed God.”  That is a key text; the apostle Paul will tie it to circumcision in Romans 4.

Biblical circumcision begins in Genesis 17, where God confirms His covenant with Abram.  Ge.17:1-2 “I Am God Almighty. Walk before Me and be blameless, and I will establish My covenant with you.”

It is conditional.  Dr. Ralph Wilson op. cit. “To reaffirm the covenant, He introduces a performance requirement, a definite ethical emphasis. God expects Abraham to live a righteous life.”  Ronald W. Pierce Covenant Conditionality and a Future for Israel “The Abrahamic Covenant is seen to have emphasized a response on the part of the patriarch from the initial encounter in Harrán [Ge.12:1-3] to the climactic events on Mt Moriah [Ge.22:1-18]. An element of conditionality is sometimes explicitly stated, at other times implied, but always understood.”  And Abram was faithful & obedient to God. Ge.26:5 “Abraham obeyed Me, My charge, My commandments, My statues, and My laws.”

Ge.17:4-6 the gentile/non-Jew Abram’s name is changed to Abraham, as his line will reproduce many nations of descendants.  Kings will come forth from A-I-J.  v.7-13 the physical sign of the Lord’s conditional covenantal Land promise is physical circumcision!  v.14 any uncircumcised descendant in the Land would be cut off by God (other than via circumcision)!

Ge.17:15-27 Abraham’s household, with his son Ishmaél, living in the Land, becomes circumcised.  v.18-21 but the Land promise isn’t through Ishmael; not his lineage.  It will follow to Abraham’s son Isaac, 21:3-4…then to Isaac’s son Jacob/Israel, 28:13-15 (but not to Isaac’s son Esau, Jacob’s twin).

Physical circumcision didn’t apply to females.  (Wives shared in the status of their husbands.)  De.21:16-17 inheritance in God’s Holy Land went to the circumcised sons, not to (uncircumcised) daughters.  Daughters were usually allowed to inherit only if her father has no son, and even then she usually must marry a man belonging to the Israelite tribe of her father (ref Nu.27:8-10, 36:8-9).

Abrahamic Covenant promises: #1 Abraham (and grandson Jacob, Ge.35:11-12) to be the father of many nations; #2 the Land of Canaan (Ge.17:8-9); #3 the earth to be blessed through the Seed (Christ, according to Paul, Ge.22:18 & Ga.3:16) of the A (Ge.12:3), I (Ge.26:4), J (Ge.28:14) line.

Again Ge.17:21, this covenant is for the A-I-J line of descent.  ref Ex.2:24, Ps.105:8-11.  The covenant, with its sign of circumcision, doesn’t apply to descendants living elsewhere of: Ishmael, Abraham’s servants and other sons (except Isaac), Esau.  Though circumcised…Ishmael, Abraham’s other sons by his wife Keturáh, and Esau all moved elsewhere (Ge.25:6, 17-18, 36:8-9).  If their descendants living elsewhere choose to be circumcised traditionally or for whatever reason, they’re still not included in the Land promise.  Ac.7:7-8 reiterates this “covenant of circumcision” was for the A-I-J line.

Ge.21:4 Abraham circumcised Isaac.  When?  Green’s Literal Translation “A son of 8 days.”  LXX “On the 8th day.”  Inclusive counting is used.  On the 8th day of life, an infant is actually one week/7 days old.  cf. Jn.20:19, 26 “After eight days”; the margin reads “A week later”.  Evidence For The Bible “The 8th is the optimum day for circumcision because of the highest presence of the clotting factor vitamin K.”

Ge.34:15-16 verifies that Jacob’s sons were circumcised (the 12 sons/tribes are of the A-I-J line).

Elsewhere 8th day circumcision wasn’t universal.  Ex.4:24-26 later Moses, the leader of Jacob’s seed to re-enter the Land, must obey their covenant God…his son Gershóm becomes circumcised before entry.

Le.12:3 physical circumcision on the 8th day was understandably a very important rite to Jews too…that is, descendants of Judah, Benjamin, Levi (3 of Jacob’s sons).  Jn.7:22-23 circumcision being treated with such importance perhaps was due in part to Moses’ experience of Ex.4:24.

Jsh.5:3, 6-10 physical circumcision and the Passover are linked in the Land of Canaan; here at Gilgál where the central sanctuary was then.  They must be circumcised.  Jsh.21:43 the Israelites took possession of the Land, as God had promised their patriarchs.

Ex.12:43-49 uncircumcised sojourners/tosháb (Strongs h8453, Hebrew) in the Land weren’t allowed to eat the Passover.  v.48 “No uncircumcised man may eat of it.”  But circumcised aliens/proselytes/ger h1616 could eat it in Canaan/Israel.  e.g. If any descendant of Ishmael or Esau coming back into the Land is circumcised, he too may eat the Passover.  De.16:5-6 Israel was forbidden from killing the Passover in any towns other than at the sole sanctuary location where God’s Name was (cf. 2Sm.6:2)!

Physical circumcision of the foreskin was a type of symbolic spiritual circumcision.  De.10:15-16 exhorts that the heart be circumcised figuratively, to enable Israel to keep God’s Law of Moses.  Ex.6:30 circumcised lips too.  Je.6:10 ears too.  But it was impossible for Israelites to (figuratively) circumcise their own hearts.  De.30:6 is Moses’ prophecy of a future non-physical heart circumcision which God would do…to the hearts of both men and women!  Je.9:25-26 the Lord to punish peoples outwardly (physically) circumcised but inwardly uncircumcised.  In the New Testament (NT), inward circumcision of the heart is a key concept.  (see the topic “Two Covenants – Heart of the Matter”.)

Fast forwarding…1Sm.18:25 Philistines were uncircumcised gentiles/non-Israelites, circa 1050 BC.

But the 12 tribes of Israel…they disobeyed God (unlike righteous Abraham, Ge.26:5).  So God expelled them from the Land, in 721 BC and 586 BC.  De.30:1-10 Moses had said the Lord would bring them back and bless them…if…they obeyed Him (v.10).  Again, retaining the Land promise was conditional.

Est.8:17 LXX/Septúagint in the 400s BC, many Persians became Jewish converts out of fear.  Samaritans living in the Land area of old northern Israel also were a physically circumcised people.  In the NT….

Lk.1:59, 2:21 both John the Baptizer and Jesus were circumcised on the 8th day.  Both were Jews descended from Jacob and born in the Holy Land.  (Jewish boys were named at their circumcision.)

However…the scriptures don’t say that gentiles dwelling in their own nations are to be circumcised (made proselytes) by Israelites/Jews outside the Land!  The Israelites were instructed in De.12:32, don’t add to or lessen God’s written commands!  (It is understood that Rome reduced rights in the Land that circumcised residents held earlier as God’s theocracy, and enforced empirical laws.)

Mt.23:15 Jesus castigated the Jewish scribes & Pharisees for their man-made tradition of physically circumcising non-descendants of Jacob/Israel outside the Land.  Jews were adding to God’s written Law!  Jewish Hasmónean leaders had forcibly circumcised Iduméans (Edomites descended from Esau) in 125 BC and Ituríans (an Arabian or Araméan people) in Galilee in 103 BC!

What about the physical circumcision of Christian gentiles, grafted into ‘spiritual Israel’ (Ro.11:24)?  This was a huge issue in the early church!  Again, physical circumcision was required for physical descendants of A-I-J, as it related to the Land promise.

Ga.5:6 the (Jewish) apostle Paul said physical circumcision was essentially meaningless in Galatia, where there was no land promised or central sanctuary (for Passover).  1Co.7:18-19 physical circumcision was of no consequence in Corinth.  Non-Holy Land territory is ‘circumcision neutral’.

God’s Land promise didn’t pertain to gentile lands.  The gentile/non-Israelite adults in the early church outside the Land weren’t required to be circumcised or keep Passover at the Jerusalem temple/central sanctuary (soon to be destroyed).

Ac.15:1-10 the Jewish Christian apostles at the Jerusalem council of 50 AD ruled gentile converts to Jesus needn’t become physically circumcised to be saved.  It isn’t necessary to first convert to Judaism!  The Holy Spirit said circumcision was an unnecessary bondage for the church at large.

Adults in gentile lands could attend church without having to undergo any mandatory physical circumcision!  The Jewish apostles in the NT didn’t abrogate God’s written laws!  But many of His requirements involved rituals which were to be done only in the Land or at the temple.

Christians needn’t try to live by rituals applicable solely to the temple environment, or by the outward circumcision sign of the Land promise to A-I-J.  Ro.2:28-29 (Je.9:25) the heart is what matters…not the ceremonial work of physical circumcision.

Ro.4:2-3 Paul quotes the initial key verse of Ge.15:6. “Abraham believed God, and it was reckoned to him as righteousness.”  (cf. Ge.26:5.)  Ro.4:9 the “circumcised” were Jews, the “uncircumcised” were gentiles (probably including by that time the so-called ‘lost tribes’ of Israel elsewhere).  v.10-12 the gentile Abram’s physical circumcision signified his prior faith while he was still uncircumcised!  Physical circumcision had been the covenantal sign and the type of spiritual circumcision.

Paul taught that the practice wasn’t necessary even for Jews/Israelites who lived outside the LandAc.21:21 “You are teaching all the Jews who are among the Gentiles to forsake Moses, telling them not to circumcise their children.”  The Abrahamic Covenant sign pertained to the Land, not elsewhere.

{Sidelight: Ac.16:1-4 Timothy didn’t have a Jewish father, but had a Jewish mother and he knew their customs.  Timothy too had faith while uncircumcised, as did Abram.  After Timothy was circumcised, disbelieving Jews in synagogues customarily would allow him to mingle with them (ref Ac.10:28).  Thereby he could better evangelize the truth, that Jesus is Lord.  Ga.2:3-5 but the gentile Titus wasn’t sent to evangelize Jews and didn’t become circumcised…Christian liberty was at stake here!}

Ga.5:11-12 Paul caustically says circumcision compellers in gentile lands should…mutilate themselves!  v.1-2 the Jews oral law requirement of physical circumcision elsewhere was a bondage of no Christian benefit in Galatia.  (Though 8th day circumcision can still have health/hygiene benefits.)

Foreskin removal remains a personal/family choiceWikipedia op.cit. “By the 2nd century [AD], the only circumcising groups in the Roman Empire were Jews, Samaritans, Jewish Christians, Egyptian priests, and Nabatean Arabs. The Catholic Church condemned the observance of circumcision as a moral sin and ordered against its practice at the Council of Florence in 1442 [What!?]. The tradition of circumcision is said to have been practiced within the British Royal Family. The practice is customary [today] among Coptic, Ethiopian, and Eritréan Orthodox Churches, and some other African churches.”

Ga.6:13-15 those with circumcised hearts are figuratively a new creation.  Col.2:11 fulfills De.30:6.  It’s not a physical circumcision.  Col.3:11 it’s no longer an antagonism of gentiles vs Jews, with racial implications.  Now the two believing sectors are progressing toward unity, in the love of Christ!

And that unified man is a global creation, becoming so in all nations!  The conditions required to maintain the Land promise to A-I-J were broken by the ancient Israelites/Jews.  ref Le.26:14, 38-43.  Ezk.33:27-29 God sent them into captivity and the Land became desolate.  Even though God did allow them to return later (538–400s BC), Jesus said their house would again become desolate, Mt.23:38.

Solomon had at one time sat on the throne of the kingdom of YHVH over Israel (1Ch.28:5).  Mt.21:43 but Jesus said the kingdom would be taken from those Jewish leaders in the Land, and given to anothernation” bearing fruit.  Ro.10:19 Israel would be made jealous by this seemingly foolish nation.  1Pe.1:1, 2:9 Peter wrote to believers who comprise that holynation”…theChristians”, 1Pe.4:16!

Since the covenant of physical circumcision applied to the Land of Canaan, what about the Land today?  Now, even some Jews say that circumcision is unnecessary.  (cf. Paul’s teaching, Ac.21:21.)  Furthermore, after 3,500 years of intermarriage & proselytizing, today it’s difficult to ascertain who’s truly (biologically) of the A-I-J line!

When the Land allotments were originally assigned to the tribes of Israel, much of the West Bank area inheritance went to Ephráim, not to Judah or Benjamin (who, with Levites, became the Jews).  And in the NE, the area of the Golan Heights within Israel went to the tribe of Manasseh (and a fringe area to Naphtalí and perhaps Dan), not to Judah or Benjamin.  This is Bible history and geography from the book of Joshua (ref Jsh.15–19); it isn’t anti-Semitism.  see the topic “Israelites Identification“.

So it seems the explosive state of affairs in the Middle East & modern Israel is complicated by brothers possibly (unknowingly) expropriating for themselves some inheritances anciently belonging to other brothers!  (In the USA, the #1 cause of sibling estrangement is estate issues!)  Yet if the descendants of other Israelite tribes who intermarried with Jews over the centuries have returned to the Land in modern times, then they in Israel today perhaps do represent the A-I-J line.  Again, eventually the Land will be inhabited by a “holy nation” of Christians (with Jewish Christians)…a spiritually grafted-in Israel!

Ezk.36:26-27 is a prophecy of spiritual Israel with circumcised hearts able to obey God’s written moral precepts.  A circumcised or new or exchanged heart…all are interchangeable terms for a heart which now desires the things of God and is willing to obey the Lord (unlike most of ancient Israel & Judah).

The pain of physical circumcision (especially for Abraham at age 99!) was a type of the pain of self-denial involved in heart circumcision.  A circumcised heart/ears/lips will obey/listen for/speak the principles of the written word of God and inner promptings of the Holy Spirit.  (Ac.7:51 Stephen said those opposing Jewish leaders had uncircumcised hearts & ears.)

Christians put to death, remove, or cut out their own agendas and those things in our lives which aren’t God’s will for us.  Snip!  Females do too.  The mental pain involving the human will may be worse than physical pain.  God softens it by bringing us to surrender.  The Lord may cause us to (gradually) experience burnout or reduced interest in our selfish pursuits which aren’t of God’s choosing.  Sanctification/holiness/consecration is a process.  A tearing out, if you will, may involve submitting to some turmoil.

We’re bought with a price (1Co.6:20)…Jesus’ precious blood!  We’re God’s possession.  He owns us 24/7!  He changes/circumcises hearts.  God is good…so as we submit to God’s will in our lives, we can believe all things will work together for our eternal good (Ro.8:28)!